Air war question

[McIvan]

I expect the answer is that munitions factories were too widespread in number and inter-changeability to be an effective target as compared to, say, ball-bearings or oil refineries.

I'm quite sure a major aim of the strategic bombing campaign was to terrorise and kill civilians, and people like Bomber Harris and Churchill didn't mince words, but that doesn't lead to the rest of your conclusions. I suppose it's possible that some factory owners may have exerted political influence not to have their class of possessions bombed, but I'd like to see a shred of evidence before even considering that as a theory. I don't accept for one second that the war was deliberately prolonged in order to increase profit.

It is disgraceful tho, that US (and other Allied nationality?) corporations were able to derive any profit from German slave labor industries (prior to the US entering the war or even during?). I think most of them should have been able to see the writing on the wall and divest, if they had any morals, but it seems to me that most large businesses are completely ammoral and wouldn't care. From their point of view....you own a slice of a Nazi germany company when your countries decide to declare war on each other. What are you supposed to do with it? It's not like it's giving you a dividend for the duration (so far as I know), and how exactly do you arrange the sale of your share when your respective countries are at war? If you disclaim, you're just handing your investment to Nazi Germany, which they would never do. When the war ends, it is asking too much of your average sociopathic multi-national business leader to disclaim ownership.

Still doesn't mean they were able to prolong the war or get their industries off the target list. Evidence please.